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If the soul is the whole man rather than the tenant of the body, what did Job mean when he said: 'But his flesh upon him shall have pain, and his soul within him shall mourn'? (Job 14:22). How could David have said, by inspiration: 'I lift up my soul'? (Psa. 25:1). How could he have said: 'Bless the Lord, 0 my soul; and all that is within me'? (Psa. 103:1). Why did our Lord speak of those who can 'kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul'? (Matt. 10:28). And what could Elijah have meant when he prayed: 'Let this child's soul come into him again'? (I Kings 17:21). Some Annihilationists, again, claim that all this merely has to do with the physical life or breath, but how could David lift up his life or breath and what could our Lord have meant by saying that men could kill the body but could not kill the life? Further, what does Paul mean by 'the outward man' and 'the inward man'? (II Cor. 4:16). Why does he speak of ''our earthly house of this tabernacle'? (II Cor. 5:1). Why does he speak of being 'at home in' or 'absent from' the body? (II Cor. 5:6, 8). What does he mean by his statement that in one experience he was either 'in the body . . . or . . . out of the body'? (II Cor. 12:2). What does Acts 15:24 mean by the term: 'subverting your souls,' or I Pet. 1:9 by 'the salvation of your souls,' or Rom. 2:8, 9 by 'indignation and wrath . . . upon every soul of man that doeth evil'? Why does John wish for Gaius: 'that thou mayest prosper and be in health, even as thy soul prospereth'? (III John 2).
All this testifies to the fact that man has a soul, as a distinct part of his being; an immaterial 'inner man.' Indeed there is still another and higher part to man's being: the spirit. |
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